rand being sick whilst using the power

Post by frenzie
i dont know if this ever came up but rereading EoTW i came across a
discription of what happens to those who could not get control over
theyre inborn talent in time thus becoming prone to become dead
following a period of excruciating pains and sufferances - could that
(coupled with a prophecy by MIN whos prophecies we know come true of
rand dying )instegate a new debate regarding rands simptoms?
would love your answere

Well no. Rand is meant to die at the last battle but not because of
sickness.

Emma

2005-09-16 19:08:26 UTC

Rajiv Mote

2005-09-16 19:39:38 UTC

I was re-scanning the books recently, and saw that in A Crown of
Swords, when Rand's balefire crossed the streams with Moridin's True
Power balefire, Rand felt struck, and his vision doubled. Then, in The
Path of Daggers, we begin to see that his vision doubles and he gets
dizzy whenever he seizes or releases saidin. The narration mentions
that he was suffering from this for the last few weeks.

It seems to me that Rand's newfound sickness (at least the double
vision and dizziness parts) come from his intersecting the One Power
with the True Power.

As for Min's viewing of Rand's death, it was that Alivia was going to
help him die, and that he and another man (presumably Lews Therin)
merged, and then one died and one lived -- but Min doesn't know which
man did what. Interesting how that sounds so much like Slayer's
condition: one lived, one died, both are. Maybe the "death" involves
laying to rest Lews Therin's ghost. (But probably it's something more
complex.)

-- Rajiv

Lorfarius

2005-09-16 20:08:07 UTC

Post by Rajiv Mote

I was re-scanning the books recently, and saw that in A Crown of
Swords, when Rand's balefire crossed the streams with Moridin's True
Power balefire, Rand felt struck, and his vision doubled. Then, in The
Path of Daggers, we begin to see that his vision doubles and he gets
dizzy whenever he seizes or releases saidin. The narration mentions
that he was suffering from this for the last few weeks.
It seems to me that Rand's newfound sickness (at least the double
vision and dizziness parts) come from his intersecting the One Power
with the True Power.
As for Min's viewing of Rand's death, it was that Alivia was going to
help him die, and that he and another man (presumably Lews Therin)
merged, and then one died and one lived -- but Min doesn't know which
man did what. Interesting how that sounds so much like Slayer's
condition: one lived, one died, both are. Maybe the "death" involves
laying to rest Lews Therin's ghost. (But probably it's something more
complex.)
-- Rajiv

I thought his sickness was supposed to be the taint having more of an effect
on him? Usually whenever he channelled you got a quick description about how
the taint would well/swell up and was getting stronger each time.

Rajiv Mote

2005-09-16 20:40:10 UTC

Post by Lorfarius

Post by Rajiv Mote

I was re-scanning the books recently, and saw that in A Crown of
Swords, when Rand's balefire crossed the streams with Moridin's True
Power balefire, Rand felt struck, and his vision doubled. Then, in The
Path of Daggers, we begin to see that his vision doubles and he gets
dizzy whenever he seizes or releases saidin. The narration mentions
that he was suffering from this for the last few weeks.
It seems to me that Rand's newfound sickness (at least the double
vision and dizziness parts) come from his intersecting the One Power
with the True Power.
As for Min's viewing of Rand's death, it was that Alivia was going to
help him die, and that he and another man (presumably Lews Therin)
merged, and then one died and one lived -- but Min doesn't know which
man did what. Interesting how that sounds so much like Slayer's
condition: one lived, one died, both are. Maybe the "death" involves
laying to rest Lews Therin's ghost. (But probably it's something more
complex.)
-- Rajiv

It could be just the taint. Could be. I've gotten into the habit of
being suspicious about the assumed explanations in these books, but I
grant that there is a point of over-analysis.

David Chapman

2005-09-16 22:13:10 UTC

Post by Lorfarius
I thought his sickness was supposed to be the taint having more of an
effect on him? Usually whenever he channelled you got a quick description
about how the taint would well/swell up and was getting stronger each
time.

But doesn't Rand suffer from the vision-doubling effect *after* the taint is
cleansed?

--
Who the f--k are you calling insolent?

Paul Lints

2005-09-16 22:29:26 UTC

But doesn't Rand suffer from the vision-doubling effect *after* the taint is
cleansed?

Shouldn't matter. He started suffering from the effect before the taint
was cleansed, and RJ said basically that the Cleansing wouldn't be
retroactive: taint effects already in place wouldn't magically disappear
because /Saidin/ had the taint removed from it.

--
Paul W. Lints Jr. UIN: 25030144
Valid email: pwlints@*DELETEME*csupomona.edu

Rajiv Mote

2005-09-17 00:16:58 UTC

Post by Paul Lints

But doesn't Rand suffer from the vision-doubling effect *after* the taint is
cleansed?

True. And besides which, the first episode of double vision (as
mentioned) when One and True Power Balefires crossed at the end of A
Crown of Swords. It continued being noticed during The Path of
Daggers, and finally the saidin is cleansed at the end of Winter's
Heart.

Jennifer Winters

2005-09-17 01:12:17 UTC

Um, hello there. It would be a lot easier to read your post if it was
properly capitalized. Please do this in the future. Thank you very
much. HAND.

--
Jennifer Winters

Nerd in babe's clothing.
Whole-body console game action.

frenzie

2005-09-22 19:46:44 UTC

ing a non native speaker of your fare and lovely language but having
ganed the mastery of being able to spell better than most native
speakers i allow myself this one *SIN* of not punctuating my texts
please forgive me ill try to do better after finishing my phd in about
ohh i guess 15 years bear with me im worth it.

}:) for im the devil in disguise

yours truly frenzie

would appriciatefurther comments...

***@gmail.com

Frank van Schie

2005-09-23 09:21:06 UTC

Post by frenzie
ing a non native speaker of your fare and lovely language but having
ganed the mastery of being able to spell better than most native
speakers i allow myself this one *SIN* of not punctuating my texts
please forgive me ill try to do better after finishing my phd in about
ohh i guess 15 years bear with me im worth it.
}:) for im the devil in disguise
yours truly frenzie
would appriciatefurther comments...

I'm Dutch, not American, and I use punctuation and capitalization for
the same reason everyone else does: It makes stuff easier to read.

Especially capitalize the beginning of sentences, and put periods at the
end of sentences. Without that, your text becomes very hard to read.

I'm still striving for Bachelor's (which is hopefully done in about 6-7
months), too, which probably doesn't even merit the honorific "Hey you".

--
Frank

David Chapman

2005-09-23 10:03:50 UTC

Post by frenzie
ing a non native speaker of your fare and lovely language

I'm Dutch, not American,

This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

--
Who the f--k are you calling insolent?

Frank van Schie

2005-09-23 12:17:23 UTC

Post by frenzie
ing a non native speaker of your fare and lovely language

I'm Dutch, not American,

This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

They do form the majority, at least on a per-country ranking (I'm not
too sure about absolute majority per person).

The US is not the center of the universe, but it's somewhat closer to it
than England or the UK as a whole.

--
Frank

Jasper Janssen

2005-09-23 16:54:20 UTC

On Fri, 23 Sep 2005 11:03:50 +0100, "David Chapman"

Post by David Chapman
This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

Someone who speaks American as a first language is generally American.

SOmeone who speaks English as a first language almost never is.

Jasper

Tom Kelsall

2005-09-23 21:27:42 UTC

On Fri, 23 Sep 2005 16:54:20 GMT, the keys started rattling, and

Post by Jasper Janssen
On Fri, 23 Sep 2005 11:03:50 +0100, "David Chapman"

Post by David Chapman
This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

Someone who speaks American as a first language is generally American.
SOmeone who speaks English as a first language almost never is.
Jasper

Hear hear. English is the spoken and written language of people from
England. I have no ******* idea what language people in North America
speak, but it has very little to do with English.

--
Tom Kelsall
Remove caps to email

Frank van Schie

2005-09-23 21:32:56 UTC

Post by Tom Kelsall
Hear hear. English is the spoken and written language of people from
England. I have no ******* idea what language people in North America
speak, but it has very little to do with English.

Besides having most of the words and grammar rules identical. Right.

Elitist snobbists.

--
Frank

Jasper Janssen

2005-09-24 12:57:55 UTC

Besides having most of the words and grammar rules identical. Right.
Elitist snobbists.

The word is 'snobs'. And it's not so much a separate language as it is a
collection of severe dialects -- it's closer than Frysian to Dutch and/or
German.

Jasper

Frank van Schie

2005-09-24 17:17:15 UTC

Post by Jasper Janssen

Besides having most of the words and grammar rules identical. Right.
Elitist snobbists.

The word is 'snobs'.

I realised this as soon as I posted it, but figured I'd leave it in.

Post by Jasper Janssen
And it's not so much a separate language as it is a
collection of severe dialects -- it's closer than Frysian to Dutch and/or
German.

Those three languages all have wildly different pronounciations, with
different suffixes or prefixes, whatever. American English and English
English, at least as I typically hear them (Rab C. Nesbitt need not
apply, but he's not English anyway) are the same words pronounced
slightly differently. The difference is one of Twents vs. flat Haags, in
Dutch terms, in my perception.

Once you get into severe dialects of either branch of the language,
using local colloquialisms and such, yes, I agree the difference is
there, but in everyday speech they are the same language pronounced
slightly differently, and to claim otherwise is silly.

Jasper Janssen

2005-09-25 00:52:29 UTC

Post by Jasper Janssen
And it's not so much a separate language as it is a
collection of severe dialects -- it's closer than Frysian to Dutch and/or
German.

Those three languages all have wildly different pronounciations, with
different suffixes or prefixes, whatever. American English and English

Dutch and German are very closely related -- if you look at the dialects,
there is a fairly continuous region of change, with the people on either
side of the border speaking (still, even, when speaking to locals) almost
the same language. The Queen's Dutch and the President's German are just
from two completely different geographical locations in that continuum --
but Bavarian, or worse, Schwitzerduutsch, is just as different from the
President's German as the Queen's Dutch is. Even if the orthography and
most of the grammar have been regularised through the majority of both our
countries.

Post by Frank van Schie
English, at least as I typically hear them (Rab C. Nesbitt need not
apply, but he's not English anyway) are the same words pronounced
slightly differently. The difference is one of Twents vs. flat Haags, in
Dutch terms, in my perception.

It depends. City English is fairly close between London, Glasgow,
Edinburgh, New York, and Houston. But even there are major differences --
a Glaswegian speaking the Scots variant of english can be near
incomprehensible to a Scouse, allegedly (Personally, I find one dialect
isn't much harder than the other to understand, leaving out vocabulary
issues -- Cockney rhyming slang baffles me completely). But when you get
into the countryside, which for centuries has been relatively stagnant
compared to the mobile population of the cities, dialects vary even more.

Post by Frank van Schie
Once you get into severe dialects of either branch of the language,
using local colloquialisms and such, yes, I agree the difference is
there, but in everyday speech they are the same language pronounced
slightly differently, and to claim otherwise is silly.

But they're not the same language even in writing -- which all other
dialects are, they just get very convoluted in pronunciation -- let alone
speech. If you're going to copyedit a text, you need to know which of the
two it's written in.

Jasper

Tim Bruening

2010-04-06 23:48:22 UTC

Post by Tom Kelsall
On Fri, 23 Sep 2005 16:54:20 GMT, the keys started rattling, and

Post by Jasper Janssen
On Fri, 23 Sep 2005 11:03:50 +0100, "David Chapman"

Post by David Chapman
This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

Someone who speaks American as a first language is generally American.
SOmeone who speaks English as a first language almost never is.
Jasper

Hear hear. English is the spoken and written language of people from
England. I have no ******* idea what language people in North America
speak, but it has very little to do with English.

I can read posts made by Englishmen, so my language must be similar to his.
The only differences I notice are some extra "u"s in some words (colour vs
color).

You have no need to know

2005-09-23 22:58:53 UTC

Abandoning the right to remain silent, David Chapman at Fri, 23 Sep 2005

Post by frenzie
ing a non native speaker of your fare and lovely language

I'm Dutch, not American,

This is the second time this week I've had to point out that someone who
speaks English as a first language is not necessarily American. It's
starting to piss me off.

From the CIA World Fact Book (July 2005), taking the countries with
first listed language English 20% of the world's English speakers are
USAsians.

Leaving out India, makes it 78%

But the who ever said USAsians speak English? They often use words which
originated in English. The way they misspell and mispronounce it, and the
number of regional dialects and accents, makes any further relationship to
English coincidental.

South West USAsians are just as likely to speak Spanish. From the 2000
Census: English 82.1%, Spanish 10.7%, other Indo-European 3.8%, Asian and
Pacific island 2.7%, other 0.7%

--
Avoid reality at all costs.
$email =~ s/n(.)a(.)n(.)a(.)e(.+)invalid/$1$2$3$4$5au/;
icbm: 33.43.46S 150.59.27E

David Chapman

2005-09-24 08:49:22 UTC

Post by You have no need to know
From the CIA World Fact Book (July 2005), taking the countries with
first listed language English 20% of the world's English speakers are
USAsians.
Leaving out India, makes it 78%

I am inclined to believe that the CIA World Fact Book is made up on the
spot, if it quotes that as a fact. According to it, America has 250m native
English speakers; Britain has 60m, Australia 20m and New Zealand and Canada
a total of about 20m. That puts the USA down to 71% of the world's English
speakers without counting anyone I've forgotten.

--
Who the f--k are you calling insolent?

c***@hotmail.com

2005-09-20 11:59:17 UTC